PCC Field Medical Training Battalion – West (FMTB-W) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the general purpose of the MIST report in casualty operations?
• Which of the following best describes the three-sided occlusive dressing technique for chest wounds?
• What is the normal End-Tidal CO2 value?
• If urine output is above 50 mL/hour, by what percentage should the IV fluid rate be adjusted?
• Which sites are commonly used for intraosseous access in field care?
• Do not leave an IO needle in place for more than how many hours?
• If urine output is below 30 mL/hour, which adjustment should be made to the IV fluid rate?
• Under which conditions would an escharotomy be indicated?
• Initial burn resuscitation uses intravenous isotonic crystalloids.
• In field care, IO and IV access usage?
• What is the correct sequence of actions when managing a drowning incident in the field?
• What is the goal urine output per hour in this protocol?
• Which practice best reduces infection during wound management in the field?
• The amount of air moving in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle is known as what?
• Capnography provides a waveform that reflects ventilation by measuring CO2 during which part of the respiratory cycle?
• Because it is a self-limited condition, a ____ is unlikely to result in shock and abnormal blood pressure is quickly restored when the patient is placed in a horizontal position.
• What is the recommended handling of a contaminated wound in the field?
• How should you secure a cricothyrotomy tube?
• Which of the following best describes a critical step when handing off to higher level medical forces?
• A patient is brought into the Role 2 after a fall from height. Non-labored respirations, numbness in the upper arm, inability to move the legs, severe hypotension; what condition is most likely suspected?
• The described patient exhibits upper arm numbness with inability to move legs; which deficit is present?
• For suspected severe TBI with impending herniation, what is the recommended ventilation rate for bagging before reassessment?
• Which statement correctly identifies common intraosseous access sites used in field care?
• What is a key consideration when transporting a casualty with a suspected spinal injury?
• Which finding would most strongly indicate performing an escharotomy?
• Adequate fluid resuscitation and end-organ perfusion in burn care is best indicated by all of the following except:
• Which set lists the five components of the ABCDE primary survey in casualty assessment?
• What is the primary purpose of applying an occlusive dressing to a penetrating chest wound?
• For cold-related injuries in the field, what is the proper rewarming approach?
• In circulation management, which vital sign is specifically targeted for stabilization besides heart rate and respiratory rate?
• A patient is speaking in random words, pulling away from pain, and opening the eyes only when spoken to. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score for this patient?
• What is a key criterion for initiating evacuation to a higher level of care?
• In the Glasgow Coma Scale, eye opening to speech corresponds to which eye opening score?
• Which statement best captures the critical step for handoff to medical forces at the next level?
• Maintenance dose gtt/min for 3% hypertonic saline after a 250 mL bolus with tubing rated at 15 gtt/mL is:
• When communicating casualty status over radio, what essential details should be included?
• _____is the best format to use when providing information via telemedicine.
• What type of shock is the only shock where in the absence of TBI the casualty's LOC is primarily lucid?
• What is a primary indicator that a casualty needs rapid evacuation rather than continued on-scene care?
• End-tidal CO2 represents which of the following?
• Oxygen changes may not be detected by the pulse oximeter until how many seconds after application?
• While on deployment you are caring for four patients with burn injuries. Which of the following is at greatest risk for burn-induced hypovolemic shock ?
• Which class of medications is recommended to reduce agitation and anxiety in the expectant burn patient?
• Ear burns are prone to chondritis.
• Waveform capnography is used to confirm airway device placement and monitor ventilation.
• ____ is the primary source of resupply in theater.
• Which of the following is a component of the lethal diamond?
• During a patient handoff, which element is essential for continuity of care?
• How should you handle a casualty with suspected head injury and altered mental status?
• This kind of event occurs when a strong stimulus of the vagus nerve produces bradycardia and hypotension.
• During the secondary survey, which item is typically identified?
• What is the immediate management for a penetrating chest wound with suspected pneumothorax?
• What is the role of basic airway suction in field medicine?
• Which vaccination prophylaxis is standard for deployed personnel, with other vaccines dependent on area and mission risk?
• What is the purpose of applying sterile moist dressings to exposed viscera?
• In field settings, which combination of signs best indicates dehydration requiring fluids?
• Appropriate doses of benzodiazepines such as Ativan or Versed are administered to reduce agitation in the expectant patient.
• Which set of signs would indicate performing an escharotomy?
• Which statement best reflects preventing secondary brain injury in a casualty with a traumatic brain injury?
• Bradypnea can be caused by which of the following?
• How should you handle patient consent in an emergency field scenario?
• Which intervention is commonly used to reduce venous stasis in immobilized patients?
• In field dehydration assessment, which statement best describes signs indicating dehydration requires fluids?
• How should you approach a casualty with suspected malaria risk in endemic regions?
• Which elements are included in a MIST-based handoff to higher care?
• What is an essential consideration when communicating casualty status over radio?
• In a Role 1 (PCC) setting, what delivery method of analgesia is preferred?
• Which of the following is a component of the lethal diamond?
• After 24 hours of fluid resuscitation, which finding would NOT be expected in a well-resuscitated burn patient?
• What is the purpose of triage in a mass casualty event?
• Which statement best describes analgesia decision-making in the field?
• What is the role of hemostatic dressings in battlefield wound care?
• Which fluid type is preferred for resuscitation in crush injuries according to the protocol?
• How many principles exist in PCC?
• Casualties with critical burn injuries are at risk of airway obstruction due to inhalation injury and burn-induced swelling and will require an immediate definitive airway.
• Which of the following is a component of the lethal diamond?
• Annex ______ is the medical services portion of the Operation Plan that provides a summary of medical threats, diseases, assets, and prophylactic guidance.
• What is essential to include in a handoff to ensure the receiving team can continue care?
• Which vital sign change is commonly observed with blood loss and hypoperfusion?
• Which sequence represents the correct order of the primary survey steps?
• 101.6°F is approximately what temperature in Celsius?
• The goal of burn dressing is to prevent contamination and prevent airflow over the wounds.
• Which ethical principle is illustrated by continuing care for a wounded enemy combatant despite a request to cause harm?
• Which statement accurately reflects the burn threshold associated with hypothermia risk?
• Which statement best reflects the standard elements included in a MIST handoff?
• True or False: Encouraging deep breathing for conscious patients with limited mobility to cough helps prevent atelectasis and pneumonia.
• Which vital signs are routinely assessed during casualty evaluation?
• End-of-life care goals include keeping the patient warm, clean, and dry, as well as properly positioned.
• In the burn injury scenario, which areas are burned?
• In EMS-to-higher-level handoff, what is the primary purpose of the clinical summary?
• If urine output is below 30 mL/hour and the current IV rate is 800 mL/hour, what is the new rate?
• What is the next step after irrigating and removing gross contamination from a contaminated wound in the field?
• How does CASEVAC differ from MEDEVAC?
• Which procedure's risk-benefit in an austere environment should be weighed against the patient's benefit?
• What are the core elements of field documentation for a casualty?
• SpO2 is represented by a triangle on the PCC Flowsheet. True or False?
• During a MACE 2 exam on a suspected TBI patient who develops a severe headache and vomiting, which action should be avoided?
• In the infusion setup, what is the tubing drip factor used for calculating gtt/min in this scenario?
• In burn wound management, estimating the total burned surface area (TBSA) is critical for fluid resuscitation; misestimating by more than what percentage can increase morbidity?
• Which statement accurately describes the role of the team lead in the care team?
• Which airway adjunct is typically used for an unconscious casualty without a gag reflex?
• Which action best ensures information needed by the receiving medical team is available during handoff?
• In the VC3 guide, which item is not included in communications to the physician?
• When requesting MEDEVAC, which information should be included?
• How should you handle a casualty with a suspicious open wound where contamination is likely?
• A burn patient’s urine output over the past 4 hours is 230 mL. What action should be taken with the IV fluid rate?
• For a casualty with a cricothyroidotomy, the Verbal component of GCS should be annotated as:
• Which item is included in the core field documentation elements?
• A patient with BP 100/50, HR 110, temperature 101.6 F, and ±20s respiratory rate, who requires frequent dressing changes and reports 8/10 pain, is best described as what status and how often should a head-to-toe be performed?
• Your senior line Corpsman ordered 150 mL / hr of NS . You have tubing with a drip factor of 15 gtt / mL . What is the rate in drips per minute ( gtt / min ) ?
• What is the most common form of distributive shock?
• If current IV fluid rate is 200 mL/hour and urine output is below 30 mL/hour, what should be the new rate according to the guideline?
• The empiric probability of death increases over time due to which condition?
• When assessing a casualty with abdominal pain, which signs would prompt urgent evacuation?
• Burn patients with TBSA greater than what percent are at increased risk for hypothermia?
• A burn patient weighs 220 lbs and has a TBSA of 30% . What is the initial IV resuscitation rate ?
• The four points of the lethal diamond are coagulopathy, acidosis, hypothermia, and hypocalcemia. True or False?
• How should you treat a casualty with a suspected contaminated wound and no obvious bleeding?
• How should you document casualty care and hand off to the next level of care?
• Which documents are recommended to verify casualty identity and evacuation priority in the field?
• Which medications are typically considered for battlefield antibiotic coverage of soft-tissue wounds?
• Which statement best describes what should be included to ensure the next level of care can continue treatment without interruption?
• In battlefield antibiotic coverage, what guides the selection of antibiotics?
• Why is early broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage often emphasized in battlefield wounds?
• What action helps prevent pneumonia in a patient who is conscious but has limited ability to cough?
• If the IV fluid rate is 260 mL/hour and urine output is above 50 mL/hour, what should be the new rate?
• What is the first-line method to control life-threatening external bleeding in the field?
• What is a critical step in ensuring proper patient handoff to medical forces at the next level?
• All are potential complications from the use of a BVM, except:
• A vasovagal event is due to stimulation of which nerve causing bradycardia and hypotension?
• Which monitoring method is best described as measuring the CO2 concentration in exhaled air to assess ventilation?
• If a patient has exactly 20% TBSA burns, are they at increased risk for hypothermia per the guideline?
• After immobilizing a suspected fracture with a splint, which assessment should be reassessed to ensure no neurovascular compromise?
• What is the primary consideration when assessing airway patency in an unresponsive casualty?
• Leave blisters intact and use which type of dressings on burn wounds?
• What is the approximate mean arterial pressure (MAP) for a patient with a blood pressure of 100/50?
• Which factor helps prevent alveolar collapse and promotes gas exchange when ventilating a patient?
• Which structure regulates natural ventilation by detecting carbon dioxide levels and oxygen levels?
• Which dressing is most appropriate for a large, vascular limb bleed after tourniquet application?
• What is the goal systolic pressure during fluid resuscitation?
• Which statement most accurately describes responsible handoff to medical forces at the next level?
• What is the purpose of applying a chest seal to an open pneumothorax in field care?
• What is the role of medical oversight in selecting battlefield antibiotics?
• The team lead's decision to continue patient care despite a teammate's suggestion to administer lethal morphine demonstrates which principle of medical ethics?
• How should burn injuries be assessed in the field?
• Which frequency is recommended for flushing an IV catheter under the minimum-better-best paradigm?
• What is the purpose of applying a three-sided occlusive dressing over a penetrating chest wound?
• Burns may be associated with an inhalation injury.
• TLAMM is the primary source of resupply in theater.
• True or False: For suspected severe TBI with impending herniation, bagging at 1 breath every 3 seconds for 5 minutes before reassessing is recommended.
• Which description best characterizes non-labored respirations?
• When treating a patient with a crush injury, which fluid is appropriate for resuscitation?
• An escharotomy is indicated for burns when the six P's are present; which item is not among the six P's?
• Why should you maintain an inline airway management plan for a casualty with potential airway compromise during transport?
• In casualty evaluation, which parameter may be monitored if equipment is available to assess oxygenation status?
• Work of breathing is the amount of energy or oxygen consumption needed by the respiratory muscles to meet metabolic demands.
• In field care, when is jet ventilation or advanced airway management considered?
• START/SALT triage concepts commonly used in field settings are best described as?
• Which motor response on the GCS corresponds to withdrawing from pain?
• Which factor most strongly indicates the need for immediate airway management in burn patients?
• Procedural analgesia should be initiated prior to fracture or dislocation reduction if not contraindicated by vitals or level of consciousness.
• What is the importance of blood pressure and respiratory rate trends over time in trauma patients?
• Your casualty care plan is created after you implement nursing interventions. True or False?
• What is an example of low survivability wounds?
• The accuracy of TBSA assessment is critical for fluid resuscitation, because misestimation by more than 10 percent can lead to morbidity.
• What is the recommended protocol for checking distal pulses after immobilizing a limb fracture?
• Capnography monitors the CO2 being exhaled through the respiratory tract.
• Using the minimum - better - best paradigm, what is the best option for flushing an intravenous catheter?
• During the secondary survey, which elements are typically assessed?
• Sepsis should be suspected in patients with fever and hypotension plus which of the following injuries? (Exception listed)
• What unit is used to measure drip rate in IV administration?
• What is the initial management for suspected spinal fracture during patient movement?
• TBSA threshold for initiating fluid resuscitation is 20%. Which option best states this threshold?
• How should you treat an open abdominal injury with exposed viscera in the field?
• If the IV rate is 500 mL/hour and urine output exceeds 50 mL/hour, what is the new rate after applying the guideline?
• Which statement best describes the content of standardized casualty handoffs?
• During field assessment of a burn, which information is essential to determine severity?
• Which of the following is listed as a sign of wound infection?
• Annex Q contains details about which plan?
• When immobilizing a suspected long bone fracture in the field, what is the recommended procedure regarding the joint?
• During patient handoff, what should be included to support ongoing care?
• Which signs indicate the need for supplemental oxygen in a casualty?
• What should be included in the ongoing assessment after immobilizing a limb fracture?
• What practical step helps verify a casualty’s identity and evacuation priorities in the field?
• In Glasgow Coma Scale documentation, a Verbal score written as '1T' indicates what?
• Which two PPE components are commonly used to prevent exposure in field medical care?
• Who develops a PACE communication plan?
• Which of the following is a component of the lethal diamond?
• In the care team, the team lead ensures that:
• Which form of history-taking is used to rapidly assess a casualty's current meds, allergies, and pertinent conditions?
• What is a common approach to pain management in the field?
• In field environmental exposure risks (heat or cold), which set of actions best mitigates risk?
• MOI stands for what in casualty assessment?
• Which best describes a handoff practice that promotes continuity of care?
• True or False: If intravenous lines are not being used, flush saline locks with 10 mL of normal saline at least every 24 hours.
• A patient is nauseated after Ketamine administration. Which antiemetic and dose is appropriate?
• Too little CO2 can decrease the casualty's drive to breathe.
• What is the role of suction equipment during airway management in austere settings?
• Why is recording the mechanism of injury important?
• What is a primary consideration when performing wound debridement in the field?
• A patient has burns covering 25% TBSA. Is this considered at risk for hypothermia per the guideline?
• For burn casualties, a TBSA greater than what percentage indicates the need for fluid resuscitation?
• What is the principle behind treating a patient with suspected spinal injury as if the injury were real?
• In field care, which statement best describes hypoxemia?
• Starting a 100 mL/hr infusion of 3% hypertonic saline through tubing with a drip factor of 10 gtt/mL yields how many drops per minute?
• In a scenario with a penetrating chest wound, what immediate action helps prevent further air entry?
• What is the primary goal of field wound care in terms of infection prevention?
• What drip factor was used in the infusion calculation for the 3% hypertonic saline example?
• In handoff to the next level of care, which element most supports continuity of care?
• What is the priority intervention for a patient with burns to the anterior and posterior aspects of both legs and the anterior right arm?
• There are three clinical variables required to compute a NEWS2 score.
• Before fracture reduction, analgesia should be withheld if which condition is present?
• In the context of field medical handoff, what best ensures continuity of care?
• In a scenario with multiple casualties, what triage category should be assigned to a casualty with life-threatening injuries but high chance of survival with immediate care?
• Escharotomy is performed primarily to relieve which form of compromise in chest burns?
• Which antiemetic option is appropriate after Ketamine as described in the material?
• In field management of heat-related illness, which action is included?
• Which action is most appropriate when moving a casualty with a suspected spinal injury?
• A definitive airway is defined as any airway intervention that is below the level of the
• In the ABCDE primary survey, what does the 'D' component assess?
• Which item is NOT part of the core field documentation elements?
• What is the best way to protect a casualty’s airway during transport on a rough terrain?
• When is a tourniquet indicated in field care?
• Which factor is essential to assess before initiating procedural analgesia prior to fracture reduction?
• PEEP stands for Positive End-Expiratory Pressure.
• What is a key sign that ventilation may be inadequate?
• Which factors influence the choice between IV and IO access in the field?
• What is the purpose of spinal immobilization in suspected cervical spine injury?
• What are the classic signs of hemorrhagic shock in the field?
• Which airway adjunct is typically used for a conscious casualty with a suspected facial injury or gag reflex?
• What is the purpose of immobilizing the pelvis with a binder in field care?
• For a casualty with a suspected open chest wound showing signs of a sucking chest wound, what is the priority?
• What is the general principle for controlling bleeding in the field after applying a hemostatic or gauze dressing?
• What is the highest possible score for the Verbal component of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Is a burn injury of 19% TBSA considered at increased risk for hypothermia under the guideline?
• Which factor should guide the decision to escalate airway management in austere field care?
• What is the purpose of maintaining a clean technique during wound dressing changes?
• A casualty with traumatic brain injury should have secondary brain injury prevented by maintaining adequate:
• Using the DOPE acronym to correct an ineffective airway adjunct, what should be done for the 'O' (obstruction) assessment?
• When ventilating an adult casualty, how often should you provide normal ventilations?
• The PACE communication plan is detailed in which annex?
• A potentially concussive event is defined by presence within how many meters of a blast?
• Nursing interventions for deep vein thrombosis include compression stockings or elastic bandages and which of the following?
• Which infection-control practice should be performed first in field care?
• All deceased casualties should be placed in body bags.
• Which option best improves information transfer in handoff to the next level?
• You are writing the care plan for a patient with bilateral lower extremity amputations. Which intervention would not be necessary ?
• Why is hand hygiene emphasized even in austere environments?
• Which of the following is NOT a standard element of a MIST-based handoff?
• What is the priority during suspected spinal injury before transport?
• Which statement by a member of the care team indicates they may need additional instructions?
• Which practice is recommended for blisters on burns: leave intact and apply dry dressings.
• Which information allows the Corpsmen and the care team to assess a patient's status over time?
• What is a hallmark of an effective patient handoff to higher-level care?
• What is the best approach to manage a witnessed drowning or near-drowning in the field?